Are the effects
of 2007’s economic crisis more catastrophic than those produced by
the 1930’s Great Depression? The persisting economic crisis
seems to have an ancient origin or, better, more than one father. So,
it is pretty hard to compare those two phenomena because they are
similar only nominally and different under multiple points of view. In particular,
in 1930’s, the scenario was deeply another one, the size of the
crisis affected a restricted number of countries (especially the
United States and European nations) and the recession arose from the
industrial sector. It is for the
aforementioned reasons that maybe today people prefer talking about
the global crisis and not simply about the economic crisis. In Western
countries, the thirties scenario came after the First World War and a
“relatively” short period of expansion, while today, in the
industrialized world, the context ensues from a period of about sixty
years of peace, during which developed countries were able to exploit
various opportunities coming from a gradual economic integration and
contemporaneously building the foundations of the current crisis. Nevertheless, the issue seems to
have only one loser: the industrialized world, which, for decades,
improved, more or less, their welfare. In the world of today,
developed countries are still struggling to way out from recession,
whereas least developed economies are managing a faster growth. Hence, does it make sense of
talking about global crisis yet? Generally,
people tend to consider a phenomenon as negative only when it occurs
in Western countries. The United States and Europe are heavily
affected by negative economic growth, so public opinion argues about
the economic crisis. In contrast, China and India, which are also the
most populated nations, are performing high rates of growth. Hence,
within these two countries the global crisis does not exist or, in
the worst case, it is a weaker growth than the previous. But, this is
clearly growth and not crisis! Developed
countries started going into crisis since 1990’s, when the Cold War
finished, the Soviet Union collapsed and the process of
“westernization” of East European countries began. That was a
first step towards the “Europeanization” of economy or, in other
words, a sort of globalization on a European scale. But, can we
state that the Cold War’s end, spawning new economic opportunities,
determined the globalization process? According to David Charles LEWIS and Karl MOORE
(“Globalization
and the Cold War: the Communist Dimension”,
Management &
Organizational History,
Vol. 5, n° 1, 2010),
globalization existed before the Cold War ended and had two targets.
The former pursued by Western countries and it was market oriented.
The latter chased by Communist countries and it was collectivism
oriented. So, it is clear that after the Cold War ended there was
only a sole way of interpreting this phenomenon and the fall of
Communism was only a mean to accelerate liberalization processes,
openness to trade and, consequently, globalization. However, maybe, a big push to
globalization was laid ten years before, in 1980, thanks to so called
“reaganomics”, that is the economic policies by Reagan, based on
economic development driven by supply and not by aggregate demand as
required by Keynesian economic theories.
Author: Emanuele COSTAPublished by: Il Nuovo Picchio n° 01/Gennaio 2014 con il titolo «The Origin of Globalization»
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